{"id":358,"date":"2018-08-31T04:23:25","date_gmt":"2018-08-31T11:23:25","guid":{"rendered":"http:\/\/claytonhowardford.com\/?p=358"},"modified":"2018-08-31T04:23:25","modified_gmt":"2018-08-31T11:23:25","slug":"god-the-son-part-3","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/claytonhowardford.com\/?p=358","title":{"rendered":"God the Son (Part 3)"},"content":{"rendered":"

Lesson 7<\/strong><\/p>\n

Some objections to the Deity of Christ<\/em><\/p>\n

John 10:30-39 \u2013 Jesus referred to other people as \u201cgods\u201d (v. 34). So Jesus is also a \u201cgod\u201d in the same sense.<\/p>\n

Jesus is quoting Ps. 82:6. The Hebrew word for \u201cgods\u201d is elohim<\/em>, which is most often translated as God or gods, but it literally means \u201cmighty ones.\u201d One can be mighty because he is a \u201cgod,\u201d or because he is physically strong, or because he holds a position of authority. Therefore, what this word means depends on context. In Ps. 82, the \u201cgods\u201d are in fact the judges of Israel, who are expected to judge righteously, like God does. Elohim<\/em> is also translated as judges in Exod. 21:5-6 and 22:7-9.<\/p>\n

So Jesus is saying that if the judges, who are mere men, can be called \u201cgods\u201d because they hold positions of authority, why do you object when I, who has been set apart and sent here by the Father himself and is therefore of greater authority than the judges, say that I am the Son of God? Jesus is not saying that he is a \u201cgod,\u201d but is above these so-called \u201cgods\u201d because he is the Son of God and therefore has the same divine nature as God the Father. The Jews understood this immediately, for they tried to stone him for blasphemy.<\/p>\n

John 1:1 \u2013 In the Greek, the definite article (\u201cthe\u201d) appears before the first use of \u201cGod\u201d but not before the second use. This implies that there is a distinction between the first God (\u201cthe God,\u201d meaning the Father) and the second god (\u201ca god,\u201d meaning the Son).<\/p>\n

Actually, Greek is very careless with the definite article. Sometimes it uses it, sometimes it does not. For example, Greek often uses the definite article before proper names, but not always. In John 1:47, the article appears before the name Jesus but in John 1:50, it does not. Does this imply that there are two Jesuses? Of course not.<\/p>\n

The definite article does not always appear before God even though the Father is clearly meant. For example, in John 1:18, \u201cGod\u201d clearly refers to the Father, but the definite article is not used. The objection, therefore, is definitely pointless.<\/p>\n

John 1:18 \u2013 Jesus is called \u201cthe only begotten,\u201d meaning that he had a beginning. Therefore, he can be a \u201cgod,\u201d but not God.<\/p>\n

The Greek word for \u201conly begotten,\u201d monogen\u0113s<\/em>, can also mean \u201cunique.\u201d It is used in Heb. 11:17 of Isaac, who is obviously not Abraham\u2019s only begotten son but is his unique son. Therefore, when monogen\u0113s<\/em> is used of Jesus, it refers to his unique status as the only Son of God.<\/p>\n

The Nicene Creed affirms that Jesus was \u201cbegotten, not made,\u201d and the Creed of Chalcedon explicitly says that Jesus was \u201cbegotten of his Father before the worlds according to his Godhead.\u201d What these Creeds are trying to say is that the word \u201cbegotten\u201d actually confirms the divine nature of Jesus Christ. Just as humans beget humans, so, too, God begets God. This is not to imply that Jesus had a beginning. It means that his Sonship differs from everyone else. Believers are the sons of God (John 1:12) by adoption<\/em> but Jesus is the only Son of God by nature<\/em>. When monogen\u0113s<\/em> is used of Jesus, therefore, it refers to his unique status as the only Son who has the same nature as the Father.<\/p>\n

John 14:28 \u2013 Jesus said that his Father is greater than he is, so Jesus cannot be equal in nature to God.<\/p>\n

This objection does not take into account the difference between nature and authority. If my son and I were working at the same corporation and he were the janitor and I were the CEO, I would have more authority<\/em> than he would (thus, I would be greater than him), but we would still have the same nature<\/em>. The Father has more authority than the Son, which makes him greater than Jesus, but they still have the same divine nature.<\/p>\n

1 Cor. 8:5-6 \u2013 Paul says that there is only one God and that God is the Father. Therefore, Jesus cannot be God.<\/p>\n

Paul also says that there is only one Lord and that Lord is Jesus Christ. So, if the objection were legitimate, that would mean that the Father and the Holy Spirit cannot also be Lord. Yet, Paul calls the Father Lord in 2 Cor. 6:17-18 and he calls the Holy Spirit Lord in 2 Cor. 3:17.<\/p>\n

Paul is drawing a contrast between the world and us. In the world, there are many so-called gods and lords, but for us there is only one God and one Lord.
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